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This wiki page seems to state that this phrase was concocted by Edward Coke, but I don't understand what meaning he implied in it. It looks to me that the meaning was quite negative - almost like "my house is my prison". Am I correct in my understanding?

Also, was this phrase existent in English before Coke?

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    Have you checked in Phrases.org?
    – Edwin Ashworth
    Sep 19, 2022 at 18:15
  • This wiki page seems to state You are looking at the wrong part of the page. You need to look at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Edward_Coke#Legacy. The quote is Coke's alone. It was written as rhetoric in the arguments in his book and the drafting of Statute of Monopolies.
    – Greybeard
    Sep 19, 2022 at 18:19
  • @Greybeard - Sorry. I accidently copied and pasted wrong URL. Just fixed it.
    – brilliant
    Sep 19, 2022 at 18:22
  • @EdwinAshworth - Thank you for that link! So the original meaning WAS "refuge", not "prison", right? (sorry that I need to reconfirm to make sure - I am not a native English speaker and my reading comprehension is not that great; plus, that article is using some old quotes, I can easily misinterpret things)
    – brilliant
    Sep 19, 2022 at 18:26

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It's older than Coke. Following the references to The Phrase Finder, we get 1628 for the year he said it, with two other people saying it in 1581.

However, the oldest I found is Most fruitfull [and] learned co[m]mentaries of Doctor Peter Martir Vermil Florentine (published 1564):

House of euerye man is his castle.

("euerye" means "every")

This is an index, which points to page 252, which explains what it means:

Which thing was also decreed afterward by the Romane lawes, as it is had in the title de in ius vocando, in the digestes in the lawe plerique: No man ought to haue hys house inuaded. For the priuate house of euery man seemeth to be a certayne holy sanctuary to his possessor. But with the Gabaonites there was nothyng safe or holy: so much had lacke of a gouernor brought to passe.

My rough translation: "[That] was also decreed afterwards by the Roman laws, as in De in ius vocando…: No man ought to have his house invaded. For the private house of every man seems to be a certain holy sanctuary to its owner. But with the Gabaonites, there was nothing safe or holy: so much had a lack of governor caused."

It seems to me like it could be a translation of an older quote into English.

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  • Thank you for this answer! So, just to make sure (my reading comprehension of English is not good and I may easily misinterpreted things, especially things of Old English), the original meaning was "sanctuary", "holy place", "private zone", and not "refuge" or "prison", right?
    – brilliant
    Sep 19, 2022 at 18:59
  • @brilliant I provided a rough translation. I think "sanctuary", "private zone", and "refuge" are good synonyms for "castle" here. Note that it's actually written in Early Modern English, the type of English that came after Middle English.
    – Laurel ♦
    Sep 19, 2022 at 19:23
  • A castle conjures a heavy image today. The point is beyond privacy to perception and pride, so palace may say it better today: What looks a little home to you (a studio apartment) is grand, homey, established, and my very own domain to me.
    – Yosef Baskin
    Sep 19, 2022 at 21:52
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The phrase "man's home is his castle" could have two original meanings. The first stems from the idea of houses being refuges where people can feel safest. This is also because in countries and divisions where self defense is legal, home is where this right is strongest. Speaking of strong rights, the second meaning of the phrase "man's home is his castle" might stem from the fact that homeowners tend to have the most freedom when at home as opposed to in most public places or other peoples homes. The phrase may elude to this "semi-sovereignty" people sometimes have over their homes.

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    Your answer could be improved with additional supporting information. Please edit to add further details, such as citations or documentation, so that others can confirm that your answer is correct. You can find more information on how to write good answers in the help center.
    – Community Bot
    May 21 at 8:12
  • Although this answer is well-written, and explains why this phrase arose, it doesn't trace the history. There are no dates, no mention of book titles or authors, no mention whether its origin can be traced to Latin or Old French. There is nothing specific. There are no facts, nothing which can be checked or verified. This looks like a newer version of ChatGPT.4 or maybe Gemini.
    – Mari-Lou A
    May 21 at 9:58
  • The answer looks like it's written by a person, it reads like a "human" text, and it brilliantly passed three online AI detectors that I used and yet I'm not convinced.
    – Mari-Lou A
    May 21 at 10:36
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The term my house my castle is a loosely translated term from Sir Edwin Coke, which the castle doctrine was formulated. Today it means a person's house is their castle and when attacked in their home no duty of retreat is required. One can use whatever "reasonable force" necessary to defend and repel the attack

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