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Question
I understand why Capetian, Valois and Bourbon dynasties are separate. But why are Philippe VI to Charles VIII considered the same dynasty as Louis XII and Francois I to Henri III? I see 3 different dynasties there. Those families where not direct descendants of each other.
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The names of those different branches are based on who was the first holder of the name/title. New branches are no longer created despite new titles being granted because nobles are no longer allowed by French law to change their surname based on their titles.
For example, Robert, the first lord of Bourbon was the first person of the Bourbon dynasty, then his descendant Henry IV became king.
Philip, the duke of Orleans, and his descendants became the house of Orleans.
Philip VI was the first Valois king because he was the son of the count of Valois.
People don't need to be descendants of each other to be in the same dynasty, they only need to be the descendants of a same first holder of a title.
Thank you for your answer.
I did some digging and found out that:
Philippe VI to Charles VIII are from the house of Valois
Louis XII is Valois-Orleans
Francois I to Henri III are Valois-Angolueme
This basically answers my question. I guess they were all just called Valois for convinience. I think it is still a bit inconsistent, because by this logic Louis XII should be from the house of Orleans or Philippe VI from the house Capet-Valois?
Vive Lousi XX
Yes, there is no reason why Louis XII should not be from the house of Orleans... Sometimes monarchs who were not the direct descendants of the previous branch decided to establish a new name based on their own title/surname, and sometimes they decide not to, in order to highlight their relation to their predecessors. There is no universal rule, but usually, the most generations separate them, the most likely they are to become an entirely new house because their apanage gradually became their own real identity more than the royal family itself.
Aren't all of them technically House of France?