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Both Romans and Egyptians supposedly killed a ton of baby boys to stop Jesus & Moses respectively. Why does only one of these events have a name (Massacre of the Innocents)
I'm not a big religion guy so maybe I'm getting the details wrong but regardless, why doesn't moses get a cool name for when egyptians killed a lot of boys to stop him?
i'm sure moses was a nice guy irl but he came off as a huge prick in Prince of Egypt btw
Neither of these events actually happened.
this is actually not relevant to my question. although I did put "supposedly" in there.
You should probably ask the authors of the Bible why they didn’t name them both.
I think they're dead dude.
Both are called the Massacre of the Innocents but only the ones killed in Benthelem have an official day, the Feast of the Holy Innocents celebrated the 28th of December.
I see. that's confusing. thank you.
Sorry for the orthography.
Lol it's fine I understood you well before the edit. Just seems confusing that they're both called the same thing is all.